in friday's class we discussed whether language represents the limits of our knowledge or whether our knowledge is expanded by the knowledge of language.
first, i feel that we need to attempt to define the word knowledge.
the oxford english dicitonary says, as "(i) expertise, and skills acquired by a person through experience or education; the theoretical or practical understanding of a subject, (ii) what is known in a particular field or in total; facts and information or (iii) awareness or familiarity gained by experience of a fact or situation. There is however no single agreed definition of knowledge presently, nor any prospect of one, and there remain numerous competing theories."
so from this we can form an idea of what knowledge is, while keeping in mind that there is no single definition, and knowledge is a subject that could be described in an infinite number of ways.
just like there are infinite definitions to knowledge there are infinite number of ways to attain knowledge. i feel that the answer to this question is: eh.
language is what we can communicate to one another. it does represent knowledge, as we often share experiences, ideas, and thoughts through communication, but it doesn't give an accurate enough portrayal of "knowledge." when one does not have the tools or vocabulary necessary to communicate, one can't share what they know. which doesn't mean that they haven't had the experience. so language is not a clear representation of what we know or do not know.
but at the same time, language is a tool to pass along knowledge. when you were a child your parents often told you "tie your shoe lace or you'll trip", "don't put your hand on the stove our you'll get hurt." this is knowledge they have some how gained, being passed down to you. so yes, language does expand the limit of our knowledge.
the question i am posing is this:
does beign bilingual mean somehow that we are more knowledgable than others? what about people who speak more than 2 two languages? 1?
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